Room-temperature superconductivity?

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johanfprins
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Post by johanfprins »

tomclarke wrote:I think we have maybe reached a point where further communication will not happen,
Yes it is a waste of time to discuss physics with a person who have a flat earth attitude: You know the persons who still believe the earth is flat and who reject all evidence to the contrary as being “physically irrelevant”?
but I'll answer your questions, I'm always up for such a challenge:
Now just answer the following questions:
(i) Does a clock keep time? Yes or No.
Johan, you are interested in physivcs, which mean the statements you make must in principle be related to a physical experiment.

I'll give one to define keeping time, so that this is answered positively.
A clock keeps time if it agrees with the time measured from counting caesium electronic transition frequency in the same FOR.
In which case good clocks keep time.
You are unnecessarily pedantic and sarcastic since it is assumed when discussing Special Relativity that the clocks are perfect clocks keeping perfect time. How such a clock is physically constructed if it can indeed be constructed, is irrelevant to the discussion. Please at least try and act like a logical being.
Now, you may prefer some less relative definition: but you will have to define the experiment that establishes whether or not two diffeent clocks keep time.
It is in the text books and the called the “twin paradox” and it is claimed in text books that a clock that moves relative to a “stationary clock” keeps time at a slower rate with reference to the reference frame of the “stationary clock”. That this is actually so can be verified by the lifetimes of cosmic ray muons. When you use the Lorentz transformation to derive why the muon coming from the sky has a longer lifetime relative to earth than a stationary muon in a laboratory, you find that the lifetime of the muon IS NOT shorter on a clock travelling with the muon than it is on a clock within a laboratory on earth. This proves that the clock travelling with the muon keeps the exact same time as the clock within the laboratory: Unless you want to argue that the Lorentz transformation is “irrelevant”.
(ii) Do two separate clocks each keep time? Yes or No?
yes. [/quote]
(iii) Do two separate clocks which are both stationary within the same inertial reference frame each keep time? Yes or No?
yes
(iv) Do these clocks keep time at different rates? Yes or No?
We have a problem here. What do you mean by "keeping time at a different rate"? How is that different from the opposite of "keeping the same time". Untill you can give a physical (experimentally defined) meaning to this statement I'll just assume you mean "do they not keep time" as above. In which case no.
Semantics! Semantics and more semantics! You know exactly what is meant by keeping time at the same rate: It means that a second one clock is EXACTLY the same length of time that it is on the other clock. Thus, when two clocks keep time at different rates the interval measured by one clock for a second is different from the interval measured by another clock for a second.
(v) Do two clocks moving relative to one another each keep time within their own inertial reference frames? Yes or No?
yes
(vi) Now since they both must keep time, and since you claim that “keeping different times” is not physically meaningful, it MUST mean that they are keeping time at the same rate. Yes or No?
As above, keeping time at the same rate is not physically meaningful [/quote] Here is the flat earth mentality again
in this case unless you define it by specifying an experiment.
I have outlined above that the cosmic ray muon lifetime proves that it must be so.
"Keeping time" as defined by me above is physically meaningful, but only relative to a given FOR.
Utter BS! If the Lorentz transformation proves that the two time rates within the two inertial reference frames ARE identical then they MUST BE identical: Unless you want to argue that the Lorentz transformation is not “physically meaningful”.
Your question supposes the clocks are in different FORs so comparing their times becomes both experimentally and theoretically problematic.
No it does NOT. I have given a thought experiment in my manuscript where two spaceships pass each other and derived impeccably that the clocks of the two captains MUST keep the same time within their respective spaceships.
If you think not, give me a canonical experiment that gives a well-defined comparison.
I have done so in my manuscript. Furthermore it is so obvious from the Lorentz transformation that it must be so that I just cannot believe that any intelligent being cannot see it directly. The Lorentz transformation is derived by synchronising the two clocks when the origins of their respective inertial reference frames momentarily coincides: After a time interval (delta)t on clock1 the other clock (clock2) is a distance D=v*(delta)t from clock1. After a time (delta)t/ on clock2, the first clock1 is a distance of D/=v*(delta)t/ from clock2. But there is only one distance between the clocks so that at any instant in time on any of the two clocks one must have that D=D/: And consequently one must have that (delta)t MUST be exactly the same as (delta)t/. And this is NOT physically irrelevant AND it states that the two clocks are keeping the exact same time within their respective inertial reference frames. What is problematic with that?
Quote:
You would have to describe an experiment to verify or deny this.
The experiment is in the text books where it is claimed that one twin will age faster than the other. This can ONLY be possible if their respective clocks keep different time rates within their respective inertial reference frames. Yes or no?
No. The textbooks may or may not think the matter through.
Correct! And neither do you.
Most, I think, describe a twin moving away at high speed, changing FOR, returning at high speed. Thus the "stationary" twin has a very different trajectory through Minkowski space than the "moving" twin. The issue is not one of relative movement (the same), but of differently shaped paths.
I have given another three experiments that claim that the clocks within different inertial reference frames must keep time at the same rate since this is mandated by the Lorentz transformation. Although you will not admit it you are agreeing with this since you argue that acceleration plays a role. In my manuscript I also derive the “time-dilation” during acceleration and also prove that two clocks will keep on keeping the exact same time even when one of them accelerates. Thus your argument is wrong, since it violates the Lorentz transformation. If the interpretation of Minkowski-space violates the Lorentz transformation, then the interpretation in terms of Minkowski space MUST BE WRONG. The Lorentz transformation gives the fundamental equations which defines the Special Theory of Relativity. Minkowski space is a mathematical construct which you are interpreting incorrectly when it comes to the twin pradox.
Therefore I cannot give yes or no answers. I've done my best above to indicate why.
Thus the earth is flat!?

johanfprins
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Post by johanfprins »

Teemu wrote:Lorentz transformation

transformation

maths
a. a change in position or direction of the reference axes in a coordinate system without an alteration in their relative angle
b. an equivalent change in an expression or equation resulting from the substitution of one set of variables by another
physics
Compare transition a change in an atomic nucleus to a different nuclide as the result of the emission of either an alpha-particle or a beta-particle
You see it is this arrogant patronising attitude of yours that makes it impossible for you to raise or understand any logic. Why are quoting these definitions?
By any reasonable standard Lorentz transformation is as much math as Minkowski space, since it is just a subset of Minkowski space.
Correct: BUT Minkowski space is a construction that is based on the Lorentz transformation. If you thus make deductiuons from Minkowski space that are at variance with what the Lorentz transformation gives directly (as you and Tom Clarke are doing), then your interpretation of Minkowski space MUST be wrong,
page 6 of your manuscript:
What is the point of
delta t_hor2 = t_j - t_m
if I understood correctly in what it means
(return time) = (light from mirror to junction)time - (light from junction to mirror)time
The point is that it gives the time during which the light front returns to the junction AFTER it has been reflected by the mirror at the end od the arm. Can you not even understand this?
Even in non-light speeds that would make the return time negative.
Precisely. So what is your point?
Let's take example without any relativity. You release an object that goes at speed v, towards object that goes at speed 0.95 v, also you go to the same direction as the objects are going at speed 0.95 v. The distance between you and the object going at 1 v is thus increasing at speed 0.05 v . The object going at speed v changes direction when touches the object going at speed 0.95 v, and now the distance between you and the object is decreasing at speed 1.95 v. Now obviously it takes less time to come back from "mirror" object than it took to get to the "mirror" object. Now according to that formulation the (return time) can be negative without any relativity effects. I don't get what's the meaning of (return time) and even if it has any meaning, I don't see how it being negative isn't anymore paradoxical than the (return time) being negative in the non-relativistic example.
This is EXACTLY the point I made! Jeez!!!
Also look at those simulations, and think that the mirrors among the x axis were removed, and hole was opened to send light signals to one another. How does the light realize that it's speed is supposed to be absolute just in a reference frame of the red one, and change it speed constantly so that it is absolute to each reference frame it takes when it travel's to green one's reference frame? Why is not faster-than-light communication from the red one to green one possible?
You are totally lost hey? Can you not follow simple algebra and logic at all? Einstein's second postulate states that light can ONLY move with the same speed c relative to any object, no matter in which manner this object is moving or is seen to be moving. This is also exactly what the Lorentz transformation is stating; as I am proving in my manuscript. It is strange that it is so but there is now enough experimental evidence that it must be so.

johanfprins
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Post by johanfprins »

icarus wrote:Johan,

I think you might be interested in this one (if you haven't already seen it).

"The Einstein Myth and the Crisis in Modern Physics." Friedwardt Winterberg

http://www.scribd.com/doc/45660630/The- ... rn-Physics
Thanks for the reference. I did not know about this one. A quick scan shows that Winterberg diagnoses the problem with physics is correctly, but his cure is wrong. As soon as scientists accept that there are no "particles", "wave particle duality" and "complementarity" they will realise that we already in principle had a unified field theory at the end of the 1920's. The Copenhagen putsch in 1927 led us away from it.

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Post by tomclarke »

I have done so in my manuscript. Furthermore it is so obvious from the Lorentz transformation that it must be so that I just cannot believe that any intelligent being cannot see it directly. The Lorentz transformation is derived by synchronising the two clocks when the origins of their respective inertial reference frames momentarily coincides: After a time interval (delta)t on clock1 the other clock (clock2) is a distance D=v*(delta)t from clock1. After a time (delta)t/ on clock2, the first clock1 is a distance of D/=v*(delta)t/ from clock2. But there is only one distance between the clocks so that at any instant in time on any of the two clocks one must have that D=D/: And consequently one must have that (delta)t MUST be exactly the same as (delta)t/. And this is NOT physically irrelevant AND it states that the two clocks are keeping the exact same time within their respective inertial reference frames. What is problematic with that?
Ok, in this argument you are trying to show that a well-defined unique global time exists.

You assume: "But there is only one distance between the clocks so that at any instant in time".

This is only true if "one instant in time" exists for both FOR, ie you have a unique global time.

Hence you are assuming the result you try to prove.


It would hold in Newtonian spacetime, of course. In Minkowski spacetime there are many different spacelike paths between a single event on the wordline of one twin and the worldline of the other twin. There is no way to say which line represents the distance between the two.

Teemu
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Post by Teemu »

Here is one more good simulation for twin paradox.
http://kspark.kaist.ac.kr/Twin%20Parado ... lation.htm

ladajo
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Post by ladajo »

Why can't we fly to satellites on an opposing LEO or MEO orbit, and have them laser pulse each other with a cesium clock based laser. I think that LEO would be better as it would give higher speed differences as they approach and depart each other.
Then for fun we could put a geo bird up that they both pulse and/or receive pulses from.
Or maybe we could do it with a solar opposing orbit with two birds.

Of course we would need to factor frame drag, etc. but it could be interesting to see the relativistic effects for velocity.

With enough money we could even build in accellaration and decellaration cycles.

johanfprins
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Post by johanfprins »

tomclarke wrote: Ok, in this argument you are trying to show that a well-defined unique global time exists.
Are you really so slow or just obstinate? I will give you the benefit of the doubt. I am not "trying to show" I am proving it without any doubt.
You assume: "But there is only one distance between the clocks so that at any instant in time".
Can the first clock be further away from the second clock than the second clock is from the first clock. This is obviously a contradiction in terms which can only occur in Alice's Wonderland.
This is only true if "one instant in time" exists for both FOR, ie you have a unique global time.
At any instant in time on any of the two clocks the distance between the clocks have a single magnitude and therefore, since this distance can be calculated by using either clock, the time elapsed since they were synchronised MUST be the same on both clocks. This proves that there is a unique global time within gravity free space. Any other interpretation is just plain poppycock!
Hence you are assuming the result you try to prove.
Nope I am not.
It would hold in Newtonian spacetime, of course. In Minkowski spacetime there are many different spacelike paths between a single event on the wordline of one twin and the worldline of the other twin. There is no way to say which line represents the distance between the two.
I do not care what Minkowski space-time says: If it says anything at variance with the Lorentz transformation then Minkowski spacetime is giving a wrong answer. IT IS AS SIMPLE AS THAT.

johanfprins
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Post by johanfprins »

Teemu wrote:Here is one more good simulation for twin paradox.
http://kspark.kaist.ac.kr/Twin%20Parado ... lation.htm
I am NOT interested in simulations that violate the Lorentz transformation. The Lorentz transformation is very clear on the issue that two synchronised clocks keep the same time within their respective inertial refrence frames. Any simulation that gives another result MUST THUS BE WRONG!

johanfprins
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Post by johanfprins »

ladajo wrote:Why can't we fly to satellites on an opposing LEO or MEO orbit, and have them laser pulse each other with a cesium clock based laser. I think that LEO would be better as it would give higher speed differences as they approach and depart each other.
Then for fun we could put a geo bird up that they both pulse and/or receive pulses from.
Or maybe we could do it with a solar opposing orbit with two birds.

Of course we would need to factor frame drag, etc. but it could be interesting to see the relativistic effects for velocity.

With enough money we could even build in accellaration and decellaration cycles.
We do not have to be as fancy as all this. If you have a long tunnel within which the gravity field does not change along the tunnel, and an electromagnetic rail that can accelerate an decelerate to very high speeds, one can accelerate and decelerate a clock for months on end to try and get it to go slower: I predict with confidence that after such a test the clock will still show the same time as another clock which was kept stationary within the tunnel.

tomclarke
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Post by tomclarke »

At any instant in time on any of the two clocks the distance between the clocks have a single magnitude and therefore, since this distance can be calculated by using either clock, the time elapsed since they were synchronised MUST be the same on both clocks.
This is repeating your previous statement. You are trying to define global time from distance, but this is experimentally problematic: how do you measure this distance? Does not the measurement depend on the FOR?

At an instant in time on one twin world-line there is not a uniquely-defined distance to measure (just think about the geometry).

You can certainly try to define global time to be local time on any world-line (as measured by the two clocks). But that does not prove your definition is consistent. In this case if one worldline is straight and the other bent the two elapsed times, from different paths, are different. Hence this method of defining global time does not work.

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Post by johanfprins »

tomclarke wrote:
At any instant in time on any of the two clocks the distance between the clocks have a single magnitude and therefore, since this distance can be calculated by using either clock, the time elapsed since they were synchronised MUST be the same on both clocks.
This is repeating your previous statement. You are trying to define global time from distance, but this is experimentally problematic: how do you measure this distance? Does not the measurement depend on the FOR?

At an instant in time on one twin world-line there is not a uniquely-defined distance to measure (just think about the geometry).

You can certainly try to define global time to be local time on any world-line (as measured by the two clocks). But that does not prove your definition is consistent. In this case if one worldline is straight and the other bent the two elapsed times, from different paths, are different. Hence this method of defining global time does not work.
I am sorry but you are spouting paranormal metaphysics. Clock2 is moving along the x-axis of clock1 and vice versa: Thus the one cannot be further away from the other than the other can be from the one. If you are happy to keep on drinking tea with Alice and the Mad Hatter, be my guest.

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Post by tomclarke »

johanfprins wrote:
tomclarke wrote:
At any instant in time on any of the two clocks the distance between the clocks have a single magnitude and therefore, since this distance can be calculated by using either clock, the time elapsed since they were synchronised MUST be the same on both clocks.
This is repeating your previous statement. You are trying to define global time from distance, but this is experimentally problematic: how do you measure this distance? Does not the measurement depend on the FOR?

At an instant in time on one twin world-line there is not a uniquely-defined distance to measure (just think about the geometry).

You can certainly try to define global time to be local time on any world-line (as measured by the two clocks). But that does not prove your definition is consistent. In this case if one worldline is straight and the other bent the two elapsed times, from different paths, are different. Hence this method of defining global time does not work.
I am sorry but you are spouting paranormal metaphysics. Clock2 is moving along the x-axis of clock1 and vice versa: Thus the one cannot be further away from the other than the other can be from the one. If you are happy to keep on drinking tea with Alice and the Mad Hatter, be my guest.
Johan. Imagine two pieces of string, straight lines. Imagine a fly crawling up one string, looking at the other. there is a fly crawling up the other string too. they can measure distance between them. But if one fly stays fixed the distance still varies with the position of the other fly on the string.
Thus the one cannot be further away from the other than the other can be from the one.
True but how far depends on the position of both flies. You cannot uniquely determine the position of one fly from that of the other except by assuming they crawl at a constant rate. But that is what you are trying to prove.

Tthe clocks are both moving along x/t paths. So the distance also depends what two points on these paths you choose. This is not well defined, except by local time.

You are saying that the constancy of the distance => well defined global times. But that is only true if you can uniquely define the 3D cross-section of 4D space-time that is space. And that is what you are trying to prove.

Of course, you can take local time of each clock, plot the two trajectories, and calculate distance between them at given local times (maybe equal local times). But that does not prove that local times along all paths that intersect twice will have equal elapsed time, which is your intention. In fact it proves nothing much.

For two objects which move with constant velocity away from each other there is exact symmetry, but no unique way to compare elapsed times. Given an FOR you can, which is why each thinks the other is going slower. For two objects which move away and then towards each other we can compare local times absolutely. The time will then depend on whether the trajectory in 4-space is bent or straight.

It is not acceleration that alters the elapsed time, it is the bending of the trajectory in 4-space. The more the path is bent to lie nearer to the two light cone edges the shorter the time will be. If you imagine light being emitted and refelcted back it would have 0 elapsed time.

johanfprins
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Post by johanfprins »

tomclarke wrote: Johan. Imagine two pieces of string, straight lines. Imagine a fly crawling up one string, looking at the other. there is a fly crawling up the other string too. they can measure distance between them. But if one fly stays fixed the distance still varies with the position of the other fly on the string.
Dear Tom, This, and what you wrote further, is according to me nonsense. But I will be travelling tomorrow and have to pack. In the meantime do me a favour. Einstein based his Special Theory of Relativity on two postulates; or shall I call them axioms to please your preference for believing that mathematics determines physics: PLEASE state these two axioms in a format that you accept and state that any deduction made from Minkowski Space which violates these two axioms MUST BE WRONG. I will then come back to this forum within a couple of days, and we can then take our discussion further.
Best regards,
Johan

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Post by tomclarke »

johanfprins wrote:
tomclarke wrote: Johan. Imagine two pieces of string, straight lines. Imagine a fly crawling up one string, looking at the other. there is a fly crawling up the other string too. they can measure distance between them. But if one fly stays fixed the distance still varies with the position of the other fly on the string.
Dear Tom, This, and what you wrote further, is according to me nonsense. But I will be travelling tomorrow and have to pack. In the meantime do me a favour. Einstein based his Special Theory of Relativity on two postulates; or shall I call them axioms to please your preference for believing that mathematics determines physics: PLEASE state these two axioms in a format that you accept and state that any deduction made from Minkowski Space which violates these two axioms MUST BE WRONG. I will then come back to this forum within a couple of days, and we can then take our discussion further.
Best regards,
Johan
Have a good trip.

I'll happily agree that einstein's two axioms for SR must remain correct.

Our disagreement will come over what "laws of physics remaining the same" means.

I will insist that this relates to physical experiments giving the same answer. You will believe it means coordinate systems must be the same.

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Post by MSimon »

This is obviously a contradiction in terms which can only occur in Alice's Wonderland.
When logic and proportion
Have fallen sloppy dead
And the White Knight is talking backwards
And the Red Queen's "off with her head!"
Remember what the dormouse said;
"Feed YOUR HEAD"

One of my all time favorite songs.
Engineering is the art of making what you want from what you can get at a profit.

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