Since there is nothing else to distract me, I decided I would share my confusion concerning the electron current needed in WB6. There are several mentions (in the final results for WB6, and a graph) that show electron gun currents of 10 - 40 Amps. This current was drawn from Marine batteries at ~ 12 volts (or more if several batteries were linked serially, instead of only in parallel). The injected electrons gained their ~ 12,000 eV energy by the high current (presumably again at ~ 10-40 amps- at least before arc breakdown shorted the grid casings to ground), and ~12,000 positive volts biased magrid (provided by high voltage capacitor banks).
If the current was ~ 40 amps, this would be ~ 10^20 electrons per second (rounded down).
I'll assume the neutral fill gas was at ~ 1 millitorr (~10^-6 atm) as that was nearing the point where arcing started. That would represent ~ 10^19 atoms/ M^3.
This gas was introduced and mostly ionized in less than 1 millisecond. The injected electron current during this time would be ~ 10^17 electrons/ millisecond.
The initial atoms were ionized by these injected electrons, but most of the ionization came from secondary cascading ionizations by these cool secondary electrons (I've heard mention that these new secondary electrons are initially at ~ 100 eV).
In this context the total electron current during this ionization time would be ~ 4,000 amps. at an equivalent energy of ~ 101eV (except see below) There are ~ 100 secondary electrons for each concurrently electron gun injected electron. The numbers of these secondary electrons and their relative energy matches the number*energy of the injected electrons. This makes sense (I think). It also implies that the resultant ions have not picked up much energy before they begin their fall into the potential well..
The questions begin:
How many injected electrons are actually present in the machine at the start of this process. Space charge limits would not allow for much charge buildup. If the 1 part per million limit on charge difference applies with the ions present, would the pre ion density of electrons be limited to this ratio, irregardless of the leakage/ feed rates? IE: How many pure electrons could a Wiffleball contain? The magnetic shielding presumably helps some but my feeble understanding is that this charge buildup very quickly reaches intolorable levels.
The secondary ionization cascade reportedly takes less than 0.1 millisecond, while non ionized gas leaking out of the machine can lead to arcing within ~ 1 millisecond time frames. So the window for operating the machine is less than 1 millisecond (apparently ~ 0.2 milliseconds). The timing issue that I cannot figure out is how the injected electrons heat up the cold ionization derived secondary electrons within this time frame. If the injected electron current is ~ 10^17 electrons per millisecond, and there are ~ 10^19 cold secondary electrons, then how do you heat these cold electrons to near the temperature of the injected electrons (10-12,000 eV) Mixing 1 hot electron with ~ 100 cold electrons should result in only a modest increase in the average energy (~ 101 eV.
What am I missing? There must be a lot of hot electrons present at the start of the gas puffing, and this starting excess must provide the numbers needed, but the question again, is how many of these startup injected electrons can be retained against the coulomb pressure?
If the Beta=1 Wiffleball is formed by the electron gun current before the gas puff, then the secondary electrons and ions must very quickly push the system out of the Beta= 1 condition. I don't see how intricate and quick control of the various currents could maintain the appropriate charged particle density while at the same time having the necessary hot electron population excess that drives the heating of the cold electrons. I suppose that if the cusps quickly open up as Beta=1 is passed, the system may be self regulating. IE: once you gain sufficient charged partical flows into the machine (electrons or electrons+ions) to reach Beta= 1 (at a corresponding B field and energy level), any excess is is quickly bled off. This would imply that the Wiffleball would be stable so long as this minimal flow is maintained. The excess is automatically shed till the optimal Wiffleball condition is again approached. But, it is very important when you consider the density buildup outside the machine that leads to arcing. Fine tuning of these knobs are most important for managing vacuum pumping requirements and of course net efficiency.
I'm not sure, but I think that the Beta =1 tests results where the current and voltage were maintained while the B field strength was varied reflects this. As Beta =1 was reached the PMT measured light intensity maxed out and then fell again, demonstrating rapid falloff in containment on either side of Bets=1 conditions.
Alternately, if you start with a Beta=1 generating plasma, and you suddenly dump in 100 times as much charged particles, but the resultant plasma is initially 100 times cooler, then the density * particle energy / B field ratio would not change. Mmmm... but still, that would leave the problem of heating the cool secondary electrons, and the change in Beta as they are heated...

Dan Tibbets